Data Communication & Networking 4 [CISCO]
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Answer This type of SDN uses a centralized controller that has knowledge of all devices in the network.
uestion 1
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Satellite Internet services are used in locations where land-based Internet access is not available, or for temporary installations that are mobile.
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Answer A newer and faster technology considered to be part of 4G technology.
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Internal BGP is the routing protocol used between routers in the same AS.
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What TCP port is used by BGP to exchange messages between routers?
Question 5
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When a PPPoE configuration is being verified, which command can be used to verify the MTU size and encapsulation type configured on a Cisco router?
Select one:
a.
show ip interface brief
b.
show interface dialer 1
c.
show pppoe session
d.
show ip route
Question 6
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A site-to-site VPN is created when devices on both sides of the VPN connection are aware of the VPN configuration in advance.
Question 7
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Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?
Select one:
a.
They can be created with a number but not with a name.
b.
They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.
c.
They are configured in the interface configuration mode.
d.
They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.
Question 8
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To verify the state of a GRE tunnel, use the show interface tunnel
command.
Question 9
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An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access from host 172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL?
Select one:
a.
R1[config-if]# ip access-group 1 out
b.
R1[config-line]# access-class 1 in
c.
R1[config-if]# ip access-group 1 in
d.
R1[config-line]# access-class 1 out
Question 10
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What range of IP addresses is represented by the network and wildcard mask 192.168.70.0 0.0.0.127?
Select one:
a.
192.168.70.0 to 192.168.70.63
b.
192.168.70.0 to 192.168.70.127
c.
192.168.70.0 to 192.168.71.255
d.
192.168.70.0 to 192.168.70.255
Question 11
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Answer A general term for Internet services from a mobile phone or from any device that uses the same technology.
Question 12
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Generic Routing Encapsulation [GRE] is one example of a basic, non-secure, site-to-site VPN tunneling protocol.
Question 13
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Dynamic Multipoint VPN [DMVPN] is a Cisco software solution for building multiple VPNs in an easy, dynamic, and scalable manner.
Question 14
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External BGP is the routing protocol used between routers in different autonomous systems.
Question 15
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What equipment at the cable service provider office connects the office to the subscriber locations?
Select one:
a.
DSLAM
b.
CMTS
c.
CSU/DSU
d.
access server
Question 16
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Which IPv4 address
range covers all IP addresses that match the ACL filter specified by 172.16.2.0 with wildcard mask 0.0.1.255?
Select one:
a.
172.16.2.1 to 172.16.255.255
b.
172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254
c.
172.16.2.0 to 172.16.2.255
d.
172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255
Question 17
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What is an advantage offered by GRE tunnels?
Select one:
a.
support for connecting individual hosts across the Internet
b.
support for IP multicast tunneling
c.
built
in security mechanisms
d.
encryption of encapsulated traffic
Question 18
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Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound and outbound ACLs?
Select one:
a.
Inbound ACLs can be used in both routers and switches but outbound ACLs can be used only on routers.
b.
Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is completed.
c.
In contrast to outbound ALCs, inbound ACLs can be used to filter packets with multiple criteria.
d.
On a
network interface, more than one inbound ACL can be configured but only one outbound ACL can be configured.
Question 19
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The use of BGP is most appropriate when an AS has connections to multiple autonomous systems.
Question 20
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What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?
Question 19
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PPP authentication is performed at which OSI layer?
Select one:
a.
Layer 1
b.
Layer 2
c.
Layer 3
d.
Layer 4
Question 14
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With which layers of the OSI model do the PPP control protocols interface?
Select one:
a.
NCP interfaces with Layer 1; LCP interfaces with Layer 3
b.
NCP interfaces with Layer 3; LCP interfaces with Layer 1
c.
NCP interfaces with Layer 1; LCP
interfaces with Layer 2
d.
NCP interfaces with Layer 2; LCP interfaces with Layer 3
Question 10
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Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual
circuits?
Select one:
a.
Frame Relay
b.
Metro Ethernet
c.
ISDN
d.
ATM
Question 7
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Which
statement correctly describes a WAN technology?
Select one:
a.
VSATs create a public WAN while providing connectivity to remote locations.
b.
MPLS can be used to deliver any type of packet between sites.
c.
The 53-byte ATM cell operates more efficiently for big frames.
d.
ISDN PRI is intended for the
home and small enterprise and provides two 64 kb/s B channels and a 16 kb/s D channel.
Question 6
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A network engineer is troubleshooting an unsuccessful PPP multilink connection between two routers. The multilink interface has been created and assigned a number, the
interface has been enabled for multilink PPP, and the interface has been assigned a multilink group number that matches the group assigned to the member physical serial interfaces. The physical serial interfaces have also been enabled for PPP multilink. Which additional command should to be issued on the multilink interface?
Select one:
a.
encapsulation ppp
b.
c.
no ip
address
d.
ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.252
Question 4
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What function does NCP perform in the establishment of a PPP session?
Select one:
a.
It provides automatic configuration of the interfaces at each end including detecting common configuration errors.
b.
It tests the link to determine whether the link quality is sufficient to bring up network layer protocols.
c.
It completes the specific configuration of the network layer protocol that is being used.
d.
It opens the
connections and negotiates configuration options.
Question 1
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Which protocol is used by PPP to provide authentication and protection from playback attacks?
Which term describes the data exchanges between virtual servers
in a data center?
Select one:
a. vertical traffic
b. backbone traffic
c. north-south traffic
d. east-west traffic
Question 2
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A network administrator issues the telnet www.cisco.com 25 command on the workstation. What is the purpose of this command?
Select one:
a. to identify the path of network traffic toward the web server
b. to establish a management session to the web server
c. to probe the server that provides the web service to determine if it is also running an email service
d. to verify that the website is operational
Question 3
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What is a characteristic of data flow
processing in SDN?
Select one:
a. The SDN controller attaches an entry to each packet to identify the flow.
b. Each data flow through the network must be approved by the SDN controller first.
c. The SDN controller routes a data flow first and the data plane will use policies to permit or deny the flow.
d. OpenStack is used to construct the entry in switches to facilitate data forwarding.
Question 4
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The show ip route and show ipv6 route commands are used to display the routing table in a router to learn the directly connected neighbors, more remote devices [through learned routes], and the routing protocols that have been configured.
Question 5
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The OSI reference model describes how information from a software application in one computer moves through a network medium to a software application in another computer.
Question 6
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AnswerThis type of SDN uses a centralized controller that has knowledge of all devices in the network.
Question 7
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Today, over __% of things in the physical world are still not connected to the Internet. Select the answer that will complete the statement.
Question 8
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Which command runs several other show commands in order to generate many pages of detailed troubleshooting information?
Select one:
a. show ip cache
b. show tech-support
c. show protocols
d. show running-config
Question 9
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One of the new challenges associated with the rapid growth of the IoT is integrating many devices from different vendors with custom applications.
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AAnswer topology shows the physical layout of the devices connected to the network.
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AAnswer is software that creates and runs VM instances and can be installed directly on hardware or run as an application on an OS.
Question 12
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Which network traffic management technology is a basic
element in SDN implementations?
Select one:
a. Interface to the Routing System
b. IEEE 802.1aq
c. OpenFlow
d. OpenStack
Question 13
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TheAnsweris considered to be the brains of the ACI architecture.
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AnswerThis is typically
regarded as the brains of a device.
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One of the new challenges associated with the rapid growth of the IoT is developing better routing protocols for new devices
Question 16
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AAnswertopology illustrates how devices are logically connected to the network, meaning how devices actually transfer data across the network when communicating with other devices.
Question 17
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SDN is a network architecture that has been developed to virtualize the network.
Question 18
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A network
engineer is troubleshooting a network that has recently been updated with a new routing protocol, but the network is not working as expected. The engineer is comparing the running configuration from before and after the change was made. Which approach to troubleshooting the problem is the engineer using?
Select one:
a. comparing IP settings on network devices
b. divide-and-conquer
c. bottom-up
d. top-down
Question 19
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The show cdp neighbors detail command is used to obtain detailed information about directly connected Cisco neighbor devices.
Question 20
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Which troubleshooting tool can be used to pinpoint the distance to a break in a network cable?
Select one:
a. cable tester
b. network analyzer
c. network analysis module
d. digital multimeter
Question 21
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One of the new challenges associated with the rapid growth of the IoT is securing new devices with varying level of security.
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Answer A network architecture that virtualizes the network.
Question 23
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AnswerThese switches provide an application-aware switching fabric and work with an APIC to manage the virtual and physical network infrastructure.
Question 24
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One of the new challenges associated with the rapid growth of the IoT is increasing the CPU power of computers
Question 25
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An attack has been launched within a company and a host name has been identified
as the source. What command can a network technician use to determine the IP address assigned to the host name?
Select one:
a. ipconfig /all
b. tracert
c. net computer
d. nslookup
Question 26
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Which Cloud computing service would be best for an organization that needs to collaboratively create applications and deliver them over the web?
Select one:
a. SaaS
b. ITaaS
c. PaaS
d. IaaS
Question 27
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A network engineer is investigating an access issue to a web server. The web server can access the Internet and the local clients can open the web pages. However, outside clients cannot access the web pages. What is the most likely cause of
the problem?
Select one:
a. The web server does not have a default gateway configured.
b. An ACL is blocking incoming connections.
c. There are excessive broadcasts in the network.
d. There is a cable fault.
Question 28
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The show ip interface brief and show ipv6 interface brief commands are used to display the up or down status and IP address of all interfaces on a device.
Question 29
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What is an example of an M2M connection?
Select one:
a. a sensor in a garbage can signaling that it is full and delivering the data to a GPS mapping system for the sanitation truck to adjust its route for pickups
b. a person getting information from a database, or conducting a complex analysis
c. two people communicating with each other through an instant messaging application
d. a domestic refrigerator sending an email to homeowners to inform them that milk must be purchased
Question 30
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Answerdiagrams keep track of the location, function, and status of devices on the network.
Question 31
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When is the most appropriate time to measure network operations to
establish a network performance baseline?
Select one:
a. at random times during a 10 week period, so that abnormal traffic levels can be detected
b. during quiet vacation periods, so that the level of non-data traffic can be determined
c. whenever high network use is detected, so that how the network performs under stress can be monitored
d. at the same time each day across a set period of average working days, so that typical traffic patterns can be established
9. A network engineer is investigating an access issue to a web server. The web server can access the Internet and the local clients can open the web pages. However, outside clients cannot access the web pages. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
Question 32
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Which feature sends simulated data across the network and measures performance between multiple network locations?
Select one:
a. SPAN
b. syslog
c. LLDP
d. IP SLA
Question 33
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AnswerA purpose-built hardware solution for integrating cloud computing and data center management.
Question 34
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For a data center, what is the difference in the server virtualization data traffic compared with the traditional client-server model?
Select one:
a. There are significant data exchanges between virtual servers.
b. More network control traffic is generated between virtual servers and clients.
c. Data traffic from clients will be routed to multiple virtual servers.
d. There is more data traffic flowing from virtual servers to clients.
Question 35
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TheAnswertransmits bits from one computer to another and regulates the transmission of a stream of bits over the physical medium.
Question 36
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What is a characteristic of the two-tier
spine-leaf topology of the Cisco ACI fabric architecture?
Select one:
a. The leaf switches always attach to the spines and they are interlinked through a trunk line.
b. The leaf switches always attach to the spines, but they never attach to each other.
c. The spine and leaf switches are always linked through core switches.
d. The spine switches attach to the leaf switches and attach to each other for redundancy.
Question 37
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A client calls the support desk and says this to a technician: "I have just started my computer and attempted to check e-mail. The error
0x800ccc0d was displayed. However, I was able to connect to network drives and access the Internet." Which statement would describe the status of this issue?
Select one:
a. More detail is required before a complete problem description can be completed.
b. The helpdesk has enough information to begin finding a resolution.
c. The client needs to plug into a different port on the switch and try the steps again before contacting the helpdesk.
d. The client needs to reboot the PC and report back to the helpdesk.
e. The client needs to switch cables before the helpdesk can begin to resolve the issue.
Question 38
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Which component in a traditional infrastructure device provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 functions to create data paths within a network?
Select one:
a. data plane
b. control plane
c. adjacency table
d. forwarding information base
Question 39
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After gathering symptoms, if the troubleshooter determines that the problem is located outside the control of the organization, what is the next step?
Select one:
a. Gather symptoms from suspected devices.
b. Question the end users.
c. Analyze existing symptoms.
d. Contact the administrator of the external system.
e. Narrow the scope of the problem.
Question 40
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Use the show ip sla configuration operation-number command to display configuration values including all defaults for IP SLA operations or for a specific operation.
Question 41
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How many "things" are predicted to be interconnected on the Internet by 2020?
Select one:
a. 50 billion
b. 1 billion
c. 5 million
d. 1 million
Question 42
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AnAnsweris a collection of end-point groups [EPG], their connections, and the policies that define those connections.
Question 43
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The IoT refers to the network of billons of physical objects accessible through the Internet as we continue to connect the unconnected.
Question 44
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One of the new challenges associated with the rapid growth of the IoT is integrating new things into existing networks.
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Answerare specialized, handheld devices designed for testing the various types of data communication cabling.
Question 46
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One of the new challenges associated with the rapid growth of the IoT is improving the Internet connections from homes
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AnswerAlso called the forwarding plane, this plane is typically the switch fabric connecting the various network ports on a device.
Question 48
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What is Fog computing?
Select one:
a. It is a type of computing where services are hosted where they are used, such as at the network edge or with end devices.
b. It is a type of computing that disperses servers and services globally in distributed data centers.
c. It is a type of computing that sends controller data to a sensor.
d. It is a type of computing that enhances P2P applications.
Question 49
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Which statement describes the
physical topology for a LAN?
Select one:
a. It defines how hosts and network devices connect to the LAN.
b. It describes whether the LAN is a broadcast or token-passing network.
c. It shows the order in which hosts access the network.
d. It depicts the addressing scheme that is employed in the LAN.
Question 50
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Cloud computing and virtualization are different terms that refer to the same thing.
Which statement describes the physical topology for a LAN?
Select one:
a. It defines how hosts and network devices connect to the LAN.
b. It shows the order in which hosts access the network.
c. It describes whether the LAN is a broadcast or token-passing network.
d. It depicts the addressing scheme that is employed in the LAN.
Question 2
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After gathering symptoms, if the troubleshooter determines that the problem is located outside the control of the organization, what is the next step?
Select one:
a. Narrow the scope of the problem.
b. Contact the administrator of the external system.
c. Gather symptoms from suspected devices.
d. Analyze existing symptoms.
e. Question the end users.
Question 3
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Answerdiagrams keep track of the location, function, and status of devices on the network.
Question 4
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The show ip route and show ipv6 route commands are used to display the routing table in a router to learn the directly connected neighbors, more remote devices [through learned routes], and the routing protocols that have been configured.
Question 5
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Which feature sends simulated data across the network and measures performance between multiple network locations?
Select one:
a. IP SLA
b. LLDP
c. SPAN
d. syslog
Question 6
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The show ip interface brief and show ipv6 interface brief commands are used to display the up or down status and IP address of all interfaces on a device.
Question 7
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The show cdp neighbors detail command is used to obtain detailed information about directly connected Cisco neighbor devices.
Question 8
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Use the show ip sla configuration operation-number command to display configuration values including all defaults for IP SLA operations or for a specific operation.
Question 9
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AAnswer topology shows the physical layout of the devices connected to the network.
Question 10
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Which command runs several other show commands in order to generate many pages of detailed troubleshooting information?
Select one:
a. show tech-support
b. show protocols
c. show running-config
d. show ip cache
Question 11
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TheAnswertransmits bits from one computer to another and regulates the transmission of a stream of bits over the physical medium.
Question 12
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A network administrator issues the telnet www.cisco.com 25 command on the workstation. What is the purpose of this command?
Select one:
a. to probe the server that provides the web service to determine if it is also running an email service
b. to verify that the website is operational
c. to establish a management session to the web server
d. to identify the path of network traffic toward the web server
Question 13
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A network engineer is troubleshooting a network that has recently been updated with a new routing protocol, but the network is not working as expected. The engineer is comparing the running configuration from before and after the change was made. Which approach to troubleshooting the problem is the engineer using?
Select one:
a. comparing IP settings on network devices
b. top-down
c. bottom-up
d. divide-and-conquer
Question 14
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AAnswertopology illustrates how devices are logically connected to the network, meaning how devices actually transfer data across the network when communicating with other devices.
Question 15
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Answerare specialized, handheld devices designed for testing the various types of data communication cabling.
Question 16
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When is the most appropriate time to measure network operations to establish a network performance baseline?
Select one:
a. during quiet vacation periods, so that the level of non-data traffic can be determined
b. at random times during a 10 week period, so that abnormal traffic levels can be detected
c. at the same time each day across a set period of average working days, so that typical traffic patterns can be established
9. A network engineer is investigating an access issue to a web server. The web server can access the Internet and the local clients can open the web pages. However, outside clients cannot access the web pages. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
d. whenever high network use is detected, so that how the network performs under stress can be monitored
Question 17
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A client calls the support desk and says this to a technician: "I have just started my computer and attempted to check e-mail. The error 0x800ccc0d was displayed. However, I was able to connect to network drives and access the Internet." Which statement would describe the status of this issue?
Select one:
a. The client needs to plug into a different port on the switch and try the steps again before contacting the helpdesk.
b. The client needs to reboot the PC and report back to the helpdesk.
c. The helpdesk has enough information to begin finding a resolution.
d. The client needs to switch cables before the helpdesk can begin to resolve the issue.
e. More detail is required before a complete problem description can be completed.
Question 18
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A network engineer is investigating an access issue to a web server. The web server can access the Internet and the local clients can open the web pages. However, outside clients cannot access the web pages. What is the most likely cause of the
problem?
Select one:
a. The web server does not have a default gateway configured.
b. There is a cable fault.
c. There are excessive broadcasts in the network.
d. An ACL is blocking incoming connections.
Question 19
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Which troubleshooting tool can be used to pinpoint the distance to a break in a network cable?
Select one:
a. network analysis module
b. network analyzer
c. digital multimeter
d. cable tester
Question 20
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The OSI reference model describes how information from a software application in one computer moves through a network medium to a software application in another computer.
What is a characteristic of the two-tier spine-leaf topology of the Cisco ACI fabric architecture?
Select one:
a. The leaf switches always attach to the spines, but they never attach to each other.
b. The leaf switches always attach to the spines and they are interlinked through a trunk line.
c. The spine switches attach to the leaf switches and attach to each other for redundancy.
d. The spine and leaf switches are always linked through core switches.
Question 2
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Which term describes the data
exchanges between virtual servers in a data center?
Select one:
a. north-south traffic
b. vertical traffic
c. east-west traffic
d. backbone traffic
Question 3
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What is an example of an M2M connection?
Select one:
a. a person getting information from a database, or conducting a complex analysis
b. two people communicating with each other through an instant messaging application
c. a sensor in a garbage can signaling that it is full and delivering the data to a GPS mapping system for the sanitation truck to adjust its route for pickups
d. a domestic refrigerator sending an email to homeowners to inform them that milk must be purchased
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AnswerThis type of SDN uses a centralized controller that has knowledge of all devices in the network.
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AnAnsweris a collection of end-point groups [EPG], their connections, and the policies that define those connections.
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TheAnsweris considered to be the brains of the ACI architecture.
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Answer A network architecture that virtualizes the network.
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AnswerAlso called the forwarding plane, this plane is typically the switch fabric connecting the various network ports on a device.
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Today, over __% of things in the physical world are still
not connected to the Internet. Select the answer that will complete the statement.
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How many "things" are predicted to be interconnected on the Internet by 2020?
Select one:
a. 5 million
b. 1 million
c. 1 billion
d. 50 billion
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AnswerThese switches provide an application-aware switching fabric and work with an APIC to manage the virtual and physical network infrastructure.
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What is a characteristic of data flow processing in SDN?
Select one:
a. OpenStack is used to construct the entry in switches to facilitate data forwarding.
b. The SDN controller routes a data flow first and the data plane will use policies to permit or deny the flow.
c. Each data flow through the network must be approved by the SDN controller first.
d. The SDN controller attaches an entry to each packet to identify the flow.
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AnswerA purpose-built hardware solution for integrating cloud computing and data center management.
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SDN is a network architecture that has been developed to virtualize the network.
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What is Fog
computing?
Select one:
a. It is a type of computing that enhances P2P applications.
b. It is a type of computing that disperses servers and services globally in distributed data centers.
c. It is a type of computing that sends controller data to a sensor.
d. It is a type of computing where services are hosted where they are used, such as at the network edge or with end devices.
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Cloud computing and virtualization are different terms that refer to the same thing.
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AnswerThis is typically regarded as the brains of a device.
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The IoT refers to the network of billons of physical objects accessible through the Internet as we continue to connect the unconnected.
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Which Cloud computing service would be best for an organization that needs to collaboratively create applications and deliver them
over the web?
Select one:
a. ITaaS
b. SaaS
c. IaaS
d. PaaS
Question 20
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Which network traffic management technology is a basic element in SDN implementations?
Select one:
a. Interface to the Routing System
b. OpenStack
c. OpenFlow
d. IEEE 802.1aq
MAC address table flooding attacks are addressed
with port security.
Question 2
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TheAnswerQoS model specifies a simple and scalable mechanism for classifying and managing network traffic and providing QoS guarantees on modern IP networks.
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It is a queuing algorithm which is an automated scheduling method that provides fair bandwidth allocation to all network traffic.
Answer:
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Packets are assigned to user-defined classes based on matches to criteria such as protocols, ACLs, and input interfaces.
Select one:
a. FIFO
b. CBWFQ
c. LLQ
d. WFQ
Question 5
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It is a queuing algorithm also known as first-come, first-served [FCFS] queuing, involves buffering and forwarding of packets in the order of arrival.
Answer:
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Simple Network Management Protocol [SNMP] was developed to allow administrators to manage nodes such as servers, workstations, routers, switches, and security appliances, on an IP network.
Question 7
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SNMP is an application layer protocol that provides a message format for communication between managers and agents
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Which type of traffic does Cisco recommend be placed in the strict priority queue [PQ] when low latency queuing [LLQ] is being used?
Select one:
a. voice
b. management
c. data
d. video
Question 9
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IntServ provides a way to deliver the end-to-end QoS that real-time applications require by explicitly managing network resources to provide QoS to specific user packet streams, sometimes called microflows.
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It is a queuing algorithm which feature brings strict priority queuing [PQ] to CBWFQ.
Answer:
Question 11
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What is an SNMP management agent?
Select one:
a. a database that a device keeps about network performance
b. a communication protocol that is used by SNMP
c. software that is installed on devices managed by SNMP
d. a computer loaded with management software and used by an administrator to monitor a network
Question 12
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It is a type of telnet attack where the attacker may use a
list of common passwords, dictionary words, and variations of words to discover the administrative password
Answer:
Question 13
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Which model is the only QoS model with no mechanism to classify packets?
Select one:
a. hard QoS
b. best-effort
c. IntServ
d. DiffServ
Question 14
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Under
which condition does congestion occur on a converged network with voice, video, and data traffic?
Select one:
a. if voice traffic latency begins to decrease across the network
b. if video traffic requests more bandwidth than voice traffic requests
c. if a user downloads a file that exceeds the file limitation that is set on the server
d. if the request for bandwidth exceeds the amount of bandwidth available
Question 15
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The Cisco Discovery Protocol [CDP] is a proprietary Layer 2 link discovery protocol.
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DHCP is the protocol that automatically assigns a host a valid IP address out of a DHCP pool.
Question 17
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What happens when an edge router using IntServ QoS determines that the data pathway cannot support the level of QoS requested?
Select one:
a. Data is not forwarded along the pathway.
b. Data is forwarded along the pathway using DiffServ.
c. Data is forwarded along the pathway using IntServ but not provided preferential treatment.
d. Data is forwarded along the pathway using a best-effort approach.
Question 18
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Network traffic can be marked at both Layer 2 and Layer 3 for QoS..
Question 19
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It SPAN Terminology which refers to the traffic that enters the switch.
Answer:
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Answerallows source and destination ports to be in different switches.
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It is a queuing algorithm which extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic classes.
Answer:
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How many levels of priority are possible when using class of service [CoS] marking on frames?
Question 23
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What mitigation plan is best for thwarting a DoS attack that is creating a switch buffer overflow?
Select one:
a. Enable port security
b. Place unused ports in an unused VLAN
c. Disable STP
d. Disable DTP
Question 24
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Packets are forwarded in the order in which they are received.
Select one:
a. CBWFQ
b. LLQ
c. WFQ
d. FIFO
Question 25
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In the 802.1X standard, the client attempting to access the network is referred to as the supplicant.
Question 26
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CBWFQ extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic classes.
Question 27
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Delay-sensitive data such as voice is added to a priority queue so that it can be sent first [before packets in other queues].
Select one:
a. FIFO
b. CBWFQ
c. WFQ
d. LLQ
Question 28
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Which mode is used to configure SNMP?
Select one:
a. router configuration mode
b. global configuration mode
c. interface configuration mode
d. privileged mode
Question 29
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Which statement describes the QoS classification and marking tools?
Select one:
a. Marking is the adding of a value to a packet header.
b. Classification is performed after traffic is marked.
c. Classification should be done as close to the destination device as possible.
d. Marking is the identification of which QoS policy should be applied to specific packets.
Question 30
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Which service is enabled on a Cisco router by default that can reveal significant information about the router and potentially make it more vulnerable to attack?
Select one:
a. LLDP
b. HTTP
c. CDP
d. FTP
Question 31
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VLAN attacks are controlled by disabling DTP and following basic guidelines for configuring trunk ports.
Question 32
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Packets are classified into different flows based on header information including the ToS value.
Select one:
a. FIFO
b. LLQ
c. CBWFQ
d. WFQ
Question 33
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DHCPAnswer is a mitigation technique to prevent rogue DHCP servers from providing false IP configuration parameters.
Question 34
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It is a type of DHCP attack where the attacker configures a fake DHCP server on the network to issue IP addresses to clients.
Answer:
Question 35
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Which queuing method provides user-defined traffic classes where each traffic class has a FIFO queue?
Select one:
a. WFQ
b. FIFO
c. FCFS
d. CBWFQ
Question 36
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What does the WFQ automated scheduling method stands for?Answer
Question 37
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Answerallows source and destination ports to be in different switches.
Question 38
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What happens when the memory queue of a device fills up and new network traffic is received?
Select one:
a. The network device drops all traffic in the queue.
b. The network device queues the received traffic while sending previously received traffic.
c. he network device will drop the arriving packets.
d. The network device sends the received traffic immediately.
Question 39
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How can SNMP access be restricted to a specific SNMP manager?
Select one:
a. Use the snmp-server traps command to enable traps on an SNMP manager.
b. Define an ACL and reference it by using the snmp-server community command.
c. Use the snmp-server community command to configure the community string with no access level.
d. Specify the IP address of the SNMP manager by using the snmp-server host command.
Question 40
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The show monitor
command is used to verify the SPAN session.
Question 41
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It is a SPAN Terminology which refers to the traffic that leaves the switch.
Answer:
Question 42
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It is an SPAN Terminology which refers to the port that is monitored with use of the SPAN feature answer Source [SPAN] port
Switch Port Analyzer
Answer:
Question 43
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TheAnswerfeature on Cisco switches is a type of port mirroring that sends copies of the frame entering a port, out another port on the same switch.
Question 44
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The LLQ feature brings strict priority queuing [PQ] to CBWFQ.
Question 45
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It is an ever increasing requirement of networks today
Select one:
a. Quality of Service
b. QoS
Question 46
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What is the default queuing method used on the LAN interfaces of Cisco devices?
Select one:
a. WFQ
b. CBWFQ
c. LLQ
d. FIFO
Question 47
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It is a type of DHCP where the attacker floods the DHCP server with bogus DHCP requests and eventually leases all of the available IP addresses in the DHCP server pool.
Answer:
Question 48
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Simple Network Management Protocol [SNMP] was developed to allow administrators to manage nodes such as servers, workstations, routers, switches, and security appliances, on an IP network.
Question 49
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Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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It is a type of telnet attack where the attacker continuously requests Telnet connections in an attempt to render the Telnet service unavailable and preventing an administrator
from remotely accessing a switch.
Answer:
Question 50
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What does the FIFO queuing stands for?Answer first-come, first-served
The
LLQ feature brings strict priority queuing [PQ] to CBWFQ.
Question 2
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IntServ provides a way to deliver the end-to-end QoS that real-time applications require by explicitly managing network resources to provide QoS to specific user packet streams, sometimes called microflows.
Question 3
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
What is the default queuing method used on the LAN interfaces of Cisco devices?
Select one:
a. LLQ
b. FIFO
c. CBWFQ
d. WFQ
Question 4
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
Under which condition does congestion occur on a converged network with voice, video, and data traffic?
Select one:
a. if the request for bandwidth exceeds the amount of bandwidth available
b. if video traffic requests more bandwidth than voice traffic requests
c. if voice traffic latency begins to decrease across the network
d. if a user downloads a file that exceeds the file limitation that is set on the server
Question 5
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
Delay-sensitive data such as voice is added to a priority queue so that it can be sent first [before packets in other queues].
Select one:
a. LLQ
b. FIFO
c. CBWFQ
d. WFQ
Question 6
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
What happens when an edge router using IntServ QoS determines that the data pathway cannot support the level of QoS requested?
Select one:
a. Data is forwarded along the pathway using IntServ but not provided preferential treatment.
b. Data is forwarded along the pathway using DiffServ.
c. Data is forwarded along the pathway using a best-effort approach.
d. Data is not forwarded along the pathway.
Question 7
Complete
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Question text
What happens when the memory queue of a device fills up and new network traffic is received?
Select one:
a. The network device sends the received traffic immediately.
b. he network device will drop the arriving packets.
c. The network device drops all traffic in the queue.
d. The network device queues the received traffic while sending previously received traffic.
Question 8
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Packets are classified into different flows based on header information including the ToS value.
Select one:
a. FIFO
b. CBWFQ
c. LLQ
d. WFQ
Question 9
Complete
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Which model is the only QoS model with no mechanism to classify packets?
Select one:
a. DiffServ
b. IntServ
c. best-effort
d. hard QoS
Question 10
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CBWFQ extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic classes.
Question 11
Complete
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Which statement describes the QoS classification and marking tools?
Select one:
a. Marking is the identification of which QoS policy should be applied to specific packets.
b. Classification should be done as close to the destination device as possible.
c. Marking is the adding of a value to a packet header.
d. Classification is performed after traffic is marked.
Question 12
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What does the FIFO queuing stands for?Answer
Question 13
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Which type of traffic does Cisco recommend be placed in the strict priority queue [PQ] when low latency queuing [LLQ] is being used?
Select one:
a. voice
b. video
c. management
d. data
Question 14
Complete
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Packets are forwarded in the order in which they are received.
Select one:
a. WFQ
b. FIFO
c. LLQ
d. CBWFQ
Question 15
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What does the WFQ automated scheduling method stands for?Answer
Question 16
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Network traffic can be marked at both Layer 2 and Layer 3 for QoS..
Question 17
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Packets are assigned to user-defined classes based on matches to criteria such as protocols, ACLs, and input interfaces.
Select one:
a. LLQ
b. CBWFQ
c. FIFO
d. WFQ
Question 18
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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TheAnswerQoS model specifies a simple and scalable mechanism for classifying and managing network traffic and providing QoS guarantees on modern IP networks.
Question 19
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How many levels of priority are possible when using class of service [CoS] marking on frames?
Question 20
Complete
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Which queuing method provides
user-defined traffic classes where each traffic class has a FIFO queue?
Select one:
a. FCFS
b. FIFO
c. CBWFQ
d. WFQ
VLAN attacks are controlled by disabling DTP and following basic guidelines for configuring trunk ports.
Question 2
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
Which service is enabled on a Cisco router by default that can reveal significant information about the router and potentially make it more vulnerable to attack?
Select one:
a. CDP
b. HTTP
c. LLDP
d. FTP
Question 3
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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SNMP is an application layer protocol that provides a message format for communication between managers and agents
Question 4
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What mitigation plan is best for thwarting a DoS attack that is creating a switch buffer overflow?
Select one:
a. Disable DTP
b. Disable STP
c. Place unused ports in an unused VLAN
d. Enable port security
Question 5
Complete
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DHCP is the protocol that automatically assigns a host a valid IP address out of a DHCP pool.
Question 6
Complete
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Which mode is used to configure SNMP?
Select one:
a. privileged mode
b. interface configuration mode
c. global configuration mode
d. router configuration mode
Question 7
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
It is a type of telnet attack where the attacker continuously requests Telnet connections in an attempt to render the Telnet service unavailable
and preventing an administrator from remotely accessing a switch.
Answer:
Question 8
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
It is a type of DHCP where the attacker floods the DHCP server with bogus DHCP requests and eventually leases all of the available IP addresses in the DHCP server pool.
Answer:
Question 9
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Answerallows source and destination ports to be in different switches.
Question 10
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It is a type of DHCP attack where the attacker configures a fake DHCP server on the network to issue IP addresses to clients.
Answer:
Question 11
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MAC address table flooding attacks are addressed with port security.
Question 12
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In the 802.1X standard, the
client attempting to access the network is referred to as the supplicant.
Question 13
Complete
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Simple Network Management Protocol [SNMP] was developed to allow administrators to manage nodes such as servers, workstations, routers, switches, and security appliances, on an IP network.
Question 14
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What is an SNMP management agent?
Select one:
a. a communication protocol that is used by SNMP
b. software that is installed on devices managed by SNMP
c. a database that a device keeps about network performance
d. a computer loaded with management software and used by an administrator to monitor a network
Question 15
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The show monitor command is used to verify the SPAN session.
Question 16
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Simple Network Management Protocol [SNMP] was developed to allow administrators to manage nodes such as servers, workstations, routers, switches, and security appliances, on an IP network.
Question 17
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The Cisco Discovery Protocol [CDP] is a proprietary Layer 2 link discovery protocol.
Question 18
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DHCPAnswer is a mitigation technique to prevent rogue DHCP servers from providing false IP configuration parameters.
Question 19
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It is a type of telnet attack where the attacker may use a list of common passwords, dictionary words, and variations of words to discover the administrative password
Answer:
Question 20
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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How can SNMP access be restricted to a specific SNMP manager?
Select one:
a. Specify the IP address of the SNMP manager by using the snmp-server host command.
b. Use the snmp-server traps command to enable traps on an SNMP manager.
c. Use the snmp-server community command to configure the community string with no access level.
d. Define an ACL and reference it by using the snmp-server community command.
Question 1
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The use of BGP is most appropriate when an AS has connections to multiple autonomous systems.
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What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?
Select one:
a. PPPoE
b. CHAP
c. LTE
d. ADSL
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External BGP is the routing protocol used between routers in different autonomous systems.
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AnswerA newer and faster technology considered to be part of 4G technology.
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Dynamic Multipoint VPN [DMVPN] is a Cisco software solution for building multiple VPNs in an easy, dynamic, and scalable manner.
Question 6
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When a PPPoE configuration is being verified, which command can be used to verify the MTU size and encapsulation type configured on a Cisco router?
Select one:
a. show ip route
b. show pppoe session
c. show ip interface brief
d. show interface dialer 1
Question 7
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Generic Routing Encapsulation [GRE] is one example of a basic, non-secure, site-to-site VPN tunneling protocol.
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A site-to-site VPN is created when devices on both sides of the VPN connection are aware of the VPN configuration in advance.
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AnswerA general term for Internet services from a mobile phone or from any device that uses the same technology.
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Satellite Internet services are used in locations where land-based Internet access is not available, or for temporary installations that are mobile.
Question 11
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What is an advantage offered by GRE tunnels?
Select one:
a. support for connecting individual hosts across the Internet
b. built in security mechanisms
c. encryption of encapsulated traffic
d. support for IP multicast tunneling
Question 12
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Which statement describes a difference between the
operation of inbound and outbound ACLs?
Select one:
a. Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is completed.
b. Inbound ACLs can be used in both routers and switches but outbound ACLs can be used only on routers.
c. In contrast to outbound ALCs, inbound ACLs can be used to filter packets with multiple criteria.
d. On a network interface, more than one inbound ACL can be configured but only one outbound ACL can be configured.
Question 13
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Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match the ACL
filter specified by 172.16.2.0 with wildcard mask 0.0.1.255?
Select one:
a. 172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255
b. 172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254
c. 172.16.2.0 to 172.16.2.255
d. 172.16.2.1 to 172.16.255.255
Question 14
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What range of IP addresses is represented by the network and wildcard mask 192.168.70.0 0.0.0.127?
Select one:
a. 192.168.70.0 to 192.168.70.63
b. 192.168.70.0 to 192.168.71.255
c. 192.168.70.0 to 192.168.70.127
d. 192.168.70.0 to 192.168.70.255
Question 15
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An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access from host 172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL?
Select one:
a. R1[config-if]# ip access-group 1 in
b. R1[config-line]# access-class 1 out
c. R1[config-line]# access-class 1 in
d. R1[config-if]# ip access-group 1 out
Question 16
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What TCP port is used by BGP to exchange messages between routers?
Question 17
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What equipment at the cable service provider office connects the office to the subscriber locations?
Select one:
a. access server
b. DSLAM
c. CMTS
d. CSU/DSU
Question 18
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To verify the state of a GRE
tunnel, use the show interface tunnel command.
Question 19
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Internal BGP is the routing protocol used between routers in the same AS.
Question 20
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Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?
Select one:
a. They can be created with a number but not with a name.
b. They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.
c. They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.
d. They are configured in the interface configuration mode.
Question 11
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Which medium do service providers use to transmit data over WAN connections with
SONET, SDH, and DWDM?
Select one:
a. Wi-Fi
b. fiber optic
c. copper
d. satellite
Question 12
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Which public WAN technology provides security by using encrypted tunnels over Internet connections?
Select one:
a. VPN
b. Cable
c. DSL
d. 3G/4G
Question 13
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Which medium do service providers use to transmit data over WAN connections with SONET, SDH, and DWDM?
Select one:
a. Wi-Fi
b. fiber optic
c. copper
d. satellite
Question 14
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Which PPP protocol allows a device to specify an IP address for routing over the PPP link?
Select one:
a. CHAP
b. IPCP
c. LCP
d. PAP
Question 15
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Which PPP option enables load balancing on PPP-enabled interfaces that connect to a single destination?
Select one:
a. Compression
b. Error detection
c. Authentication
d. Multilink
e. PPP Callback
Question 16
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What is a characteristic of a WAN?
Select one:
a. WANs always use physical cables to connect LANs.
b. A WAN is typically owned by an enterprise which wants to interconnect its LANs.
c. A WAN operates inside the geographic scope of a LAN.
d. WAN service providers include carriers such as a telephone network or satellite service.
Question 17
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A construction firm is building a power plant at a remote and isolated mine site and needs to connect the data network of the plant to the corporate network. Which public technology is the most suitable to meet the connection needs?
Select one:
a. WiMax
b. DSL
c. satellite Internet
d. Municipal Wi-Fi
Question 18
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Which one of the WAN technologies is inadequate for video traffic but operates
adequately for voice traffic?
Select one:
a. ATM
b. Ethernet WAN
c. dialup
d. ISDN BRI
Question 19
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What is a disadvantage of leased lines?
Select one:
a. low quality
b. high cost
c. inconsistent availability
d. complexity
Question 20
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Which additional functionality is available on an interface when the encapsulation is changed from HDLC to PPP?
Select one:
a. flow control
b. error control
c. synchronous communication
d. authentication
Question 32
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It SPAN Terminology which refers to the traffic that enters the switch.
Answer:
Answer It is a networking device that provides internetworking and WAN access interface ports that are used to connect to the service provider network.
Question textQuestion text
Answer It is the default encapsulation type on point-to-point connections, dedicated links, and circuit-switched connections when the link uses two Cisco devices.
AnswerThis is a point established in a building or complex to separate customer equipment from service provider equipment.
Question text
Answer It is a WAN protocol that provides Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous and asynchronous circuits.
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AnswerA type of digital modem used with high-speed DSL or cable Internet service.
AnswerA newer and faster technology considered to be part of 4G technology.
Question text
Answer a type of network that establishes a dedicated circuit [or channel] between nodes and terminals before the users may communicate.