Which strategy would be contraindicated while communicating with a patient who has cognitive impairment quizlet?

The nurse is assisting with caring for a client after a craniotomy. Which is the best position for the client to be placed?

Semi-Fowler's position

After a craniotomy, the head of the bed is elevated 30 to 45 degrees (semi-Fowler's to Fowler's position), and the client's head is maintained in a midline, neutral position to facilitate venous drainage.

The nurse is caring for a client following a supratentorial craniotomy, in which a large tumor was removed from the left side. In which position can the nurse safely place the client?

A

Clients who have undergone supratentorial surgery should have the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees to promote venous drainage from the head. The client is positioned to avoid extreme hip or neck flexion and the head is maintained in a midline neutral position. If a large tumor has been removed, the client should be placed on the nonoperative side to prevent displacement of the cranial contents. A flat position or Trendelenburg's position would increase intracranial pressure. A reverse Trendelenburg's position would not be helpful and may be uncomfortable for the client.

A client with a seizure disorder is being admitted to the hospital. Which should the nurse plan to implement for this client? Select all that apply.

Pad the bed's side rails.
Place an airway at the bedside
Place oxygen equipment at the bedside.
Place suction equipment at the bedside.

The nurse should plan seizure precautions for a client with a seizure disorder. The precautions include padded side rails and an airway, and oxygen and suction equipment at the bedside. Attempts to force a padded tongue blade between clenched teeth may result in injury to the teeth and mouth; therefore a padded tongue blade is not placed at the bedside.

The nurse is caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which change in vital signs would occur if ICP is rising?

Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing BP

A change in vital signs may be a late sign of increased ICP. Trends include increasing temperature and BP and decreasing pulse and respirations. Respiratory irregularities may also arise.

The nurse observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) positioning the client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which position would require intervention by the nurse?

Head turned to the side

The head of the client with increased ICP should be positioned so that the head is in a neutral, midline position. The nurse should avoid flexing or extending the neck or turning the head side to side. The head of the bed should be raised to 30 to 45 degrees. Use of proper positions promotes venous drainage from the cranium to keep ICP down.

The client recovering from a head injury is arousable and participating in care. The nurse determines that the client understands measures to prevent elevations in intracranial pressure (ICP) if the nurse observes the client doing which activity?

Exhaling during repositioning

Activities that increase intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressures cause indirect elevation of the ICP. Some of these activities include isometric exercises, Valsalva maneuver, coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose. Exhaling during activities such as repositioning or pulling up in bed opens the glottis, which prevents intrathoracic pressure from rising.

The client has clear fluid leaking from the nose after a basilar skull fracture. The nurse determines that this is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) if the fluid meets which criteria?

Separates into concentric rings and tests positive for glucose

Leakage of CSF from the ears or nose may accompany basilar skull fracture. It can be distinguished from other body fluids because the drainage will separate into bloody and yellow concentric rings on dressing material, which is known as the halo sign. It also tests positive for glucose. Options 1, 2, and 3 are not characteristics of CSF.

The client is admitted to the hospital for observation with a probable minor head injury after an automobile crash. The nurse expects the cervical collar will remain in place until which time?

The health care provider reviews the x-ray results.

There is a significant association between cervical spine injury and head injury. For this reason, the nurse leaves any form of spinal immobilization in place until lateral cervical spine x-rays rule out fracture or other damage and the results have been reviewed by the health care provider.

The client was seen and treated in the emergency department (ED) for a concussion. Before discharge, the nurse explains the signs/symptoms of a worsening condition. The nurse determines that the family needs further teaching if they state they will return to the ED if the client experiences which sign/symptom?

Minor headache

A concussion after head injury is a temporary loss of consciousness (from a few seconds to a few minutes) without evidence of structural damage. After concussion, the family is taught to monitor the client and call the health care provider or return the client to the emergency department if certain signs and symptoms are noted. These include confusion, difficulty awakening or speaking, one-sided weakness, vomiting, or severe headache. Minor headache is expected.

The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone craniotomy with a supratentorial incision. The nurse should plan to place the client in which position postoperatively?

Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees, head and neck midline

Following supratentorial surgery, the head of the bed is kept at a 30- to 45-degree angle. The head and neck should not be angled either anteriorly or laterally, but rather should be kept in a neutral (midline) position. This will promote venous return through the jugular veins, which will help prevent a rise in intracranial pressure.

The client with a cervical spine injury has Crutchfield tongs applied in the emergency department. The nurse should perform which essential action when caring for this client?

Comparing the amount of prescribed weights with the amount in use

Crutchfield tongs are applied after drilling holes in the client's skull under local anesthesia. Weights are attached to the tongs, which exert pulling pressure on the longitudinal axis of the cervical spine. The nurse ensures that weights hang freely and that the amount of weight matches the current prescription. The client with Crutchfield tongs is placed on a Stryker frame or Roto-Rest bed. The nurse does not remove the weights to administer care or change the level of tension or traction based on client comfort level.

The nurse has provided discharge instructions to a client with an application of a halo device. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if which statement is made?

"I will drive only during the daytime."

The client should not drive because the device impairs the range of vision. The halo device alters balance and can cause fatigue because of its weight. The client should cleanse the skin daily under the vest or the device to protect the skin from ulceration and should use powder or lotions sparingly or not at all. The wool liner should be changed if odor becomes a problem. The client should have food cut into small pieces to facilitate chewing and use a straw for drinking. Pin care is done as instructed.

The nurse is caring for the client who has suffered spinal cord injury. The nurse further monitors the client for signs of autonomic dysreflexia and suspects this complication if which sign/symptom is noted?

Severe, throbbing headache

The client with spinal cord injury above the level of T7 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. It is characterized by a severe, throbbing headache, flushing of the face and neck, bradycardia, and sudden severe hypertension. Other signs include nasal stuffiness, blurred vision, nausea, and sweating. It is a life-threatening syndrome triggered by a noxious stimulus below the level of the injury

The client with spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The least appropriate measure to minimize the risk of autonomic dysreflexia is which action?

Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours

The most frequent cause of autonomic dysreflexia is a distended bladder. Straight catheterization should be performed every 4 to 6 hours, and indwelling bladder catheters should be checked frequently for kinks in the tubing. It is not appropriate to catheterize the client every 12 hours. Constipation and fecal impaction are other causes, so maintaining bowel regularity is important. Other causes include stimulation of the skin from tactile, thermal, or painful stimuli. The nurse administers care to minimize risk in these areas.

The client with spinal cord injury suddenly experiences an episode of autonomic dysreflexia. After checking vital signs, which immediate action should the nurse take?

Raise the head of the bed and remove the noxious stimulus.

Key nursing actions are to sit the client up in bed, remove the noxious stimulus, and bring the blood pressure under control with antihypertensive medication per protocol. The nurse can also clearly label the client's chart identifying the risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Client and family should be taught to recognize, and later manage, the signs and symptoms of this syndrome.

The nurse is assigned to care for an adult client who had a stroke and is aphasic. Which interventions should the nurse use for communicating with the client? Select all that apply.

Face the client when talking.
Speak slowly and maintain eye contact.
Use gestures when talking to enhance words.
Give the client directions using short phrases and simple terms.

A client who is aphasic has difficulty expressing or understanding language. The nurse should face the client when talking, establish and maintain eye contact, and speak slowly and distinctly. The nurse should use gestures and pantomime when talking to enhance words and use body language to enhance the message. The nurse should give the client directions using short phrases and simple terms, and phrase questions so that they can be answered with a yes or no. If there is a need to repeat something, the nurse should use the same words a second time.

The nurse is admitting a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome to the nursing unit. The client has an ascending paralysis to the level of the waist. Knowing the complications of the disorder, the nurse should bring which items into the client's room?

Electrocardiographic monitoring electrodes and intubation tray

The client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is at risk for respiratory failure because of ascending paralysis. An intubation tray should be available for use. Another complication of this syndrome is cardiac dysrhythmia, which necessitates the use of ECG monitoring. Because the client is immobilized, the nurse should routinely assess for deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.

The nurse is caring for a client with an intracranial aneurysm who was previously alert. Which finding should be an early indication that the level of consciousness (LOC) is deteriorating?

Drowsiness

Early changes in LOC relate to orientation, alertness, and verbal responsiveness. Less frequent speech, slight slurring of speech, and mild drowsiness are early signs of decreasing LOC. Ptosis of the eyelid is due to pressure on and dysfunction of cranial nerve III and does not relate to LOC.

The nurse is planning to put aneurysm precautions in place for the client with a cerebral aneurysm. Which item should be included as part of the precautions?

Maintaining the head of the bed at 15 degrees

Aneurysm precautions include placing the client on bed rest with the head of the bed elevated in a quiet setting. Lights are kept dim to minimize environmental stimulation. Any activity such as pushing, pulling, sneezing, coughing, or straining that increases blood pressure or impedes venous return from the brain is prohibited. The nurse provides all physical care to minimize increases in blood pressure. For the same reason, visitors, radio, television, and reading materials are prohibited or limited. Stimulants such as caffeine and nicotine are prohibited; decaffeinated coffee or tea may be given

The nurse is caring for a client who begins to experience seizure activity while in bed. Which action by the nurse would be contraindicated?

Restrain the client's limbs.

Nursing actions during a seizure include providing privacy; loosening restrictive clothing; removing the pillow and raising the padded side rails in bed; and placing the client on one side with the head flexed forward, if possible, to allow the tongue to fall forward and facilitate drainage. The limbs are never restrained because the strong muscle contractions could cause the client harm. If the client is not in bed when seizure activity begins, the nurse lowers the client to the floor, if possible; protects the head against injury; and moves furniture that may injure the client.

The nurse is planning care for the client with hemiparesis of the right arm and leg. Where should the nurse plan to place objects needed by the client?

Within the client's reach, on the left side

Hemiparesis is a weakness of the face, arm, and leg on one side. The client with one-sided hemiparesis benefits from having objects placed on the unaffected side and within reach. Other helpful activities with hemiparesis include range-of-motion exercises to the affected side and muscle-strengthening exercises to the unaffected side.

The nurse is reinforcing instructions to the family of a stroke client who has homonymous hemianopsia about measures to help the client overcome the deficit. The nurse determines that the family understands the measures to use if they state that they will do which?

Remind the client to turn the head to scan the lost visual field

Homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field. The client with homonymous hemianopsia should have objects placed in the intact field of vision, and the nurse should approach the client from the intact side. The nurse instructs the client to scan the environment to overcome the visual deficit and performs client teaching from within the intact field of vision. The nurse encourages the use of personal eyeglasses if they are available.

A client has experienced an episode of myasthenic crisis. The nurse collects data to determine whether the client has experienced which precipitating factor?

Omitted doses of medication

Myasthenic crisis is often caused by undermedication and responds to administration of cholinergic medications such as neostigmine (Prostigmin) and pyridostigmine (Mestinon). Cholinergic crisis (the opposite problem) is caused by excess medication and responds to withholding of medications. Too little exercise and fatty food intake are incorrect options. Overexertion and overeating could trigger myasthenic crisis.

A client with Parkinson's disease is embarrassed about the symptoms of the disorder and is bored and lonely. The nurse should plan which approach as therapeutic in assisting the client to cope with the disease?

Encourage and praise perseverance in exercising and performing ADL

The client with Parkinson's disease tends to become withdrawn and depressed and therefore should become an active participant in his or her own care to prevent this. Activities should be planned throughout the day to inhibit daytime sleeping and boredom. The nurse gives the client encouragement and praises the client for perseverance. Activities such as exercise help prevent progression of the disease, and self-care improves self-esteem.

The nurse has given suggestions to the client with trigeminal neuralgia about strategies to minimize episodes of pain. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client made which statement?

"I will try to eat my food either very warm or very cold."

Facial pain can be minimized by using cotton pads and room temperature water to wash the face. The client should chew on the unaffected side of the mouth, eat a soft diet, and take in foods and beverages at room temperature. If toothbrushing triggers pain, sometimes an oral rinse after meals is more helpful.

A client has an impairment of cranial nerve II. Specific to this impairment, the nurse plans to do which to ensure client safety?

Provide a clear path for ambulation without obstacles.

Cranial nerve II is the optic nerve, which governs vision. The nurse can provide safety for the visually impaired client by clearing the path of obstacles when ambulating. Testing the shower water temperature would be useful if there were impairment of peripheral nerves. Speaking loudly may help overcome a deficit of cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear). Cranial nerves VII (facial) and IX (glossopharyngeal) control taste from the anterior two thirds and posterior one third of the tongue, respectively.

The nurse is monitoring a client with a blunt head injury sustained from a motor vehicle crash. Which would indicate a basal skull fracture as a result of the injury?

Bloody or clear drainage from the auditory canal

Bloody or clear watery drainage from the auditory canal indicates a cerebrospinal fluid leak following trauma and suggests a basal skull fracture. This warrants immediate attention. Option 3 is indicative of an infectious process. Options 1 and 2 are not specifically associated with a basal skull fracture.

A client has a cerebellar lesion. The nurse determines that the client is adapting successfully to this problem if the client demonstrates proper use of which item?

Walker

The cerebellum is responsible for balance and coordination. A walker would provide stability for the client during ambulation. Adaptive eating utensils may be beneficial when the client has partial paralysis of the hand. A raised toilet seat is useful when the client does not have the mobility or ability to flex the hips. A slider board is used in transferring a client from a bed to stretcher or wheelchair

The nurse is planning care for a client who displays confusion secondary to a neurological problem. Which approach by the nurse would be least helpful in assisting this client?

Encouraging multiple visitors at one time

Clients with cognitive impairment from neurological dysfunction respond best to a stable environment, which is limited in the amounts and type of sensory input. The nurse can provide sensory cues and give clear, simple directions in a positive manner. Confusion and agitation can be minimized by reducing environmental stimuli (such as television, multiple visitors) and keeping familiar personal articles (such as family pictures) at the bedside.

A client with a neurological impairment experiences urinary incontinence. Which nursing action should help the client adapt to this alteration?

Establishing a toileting schedule

A bladder retraining program, such as use of a toileting schedule, may be helpful to clients experiencing urinary incontinence. A Foley catheter should be used only when necessary because of risk of infection. Use of diapers or pads is the least acceptable alternative because the risk of skin breakdown exists.

The nurse has obtained a personal and family history from a client with a neurological disorder. Which finding in the client's history is least likely associated with a risk for neurological problems?

Allergy to pollen

Previous neurological problems such as headaches or back injuries place the client more at risk for development of a neurological disorder. Chronic diseases such as hypertension and diabetes mellitus also place the client at greater risk. Assessment of allergies is a routine part of the health history, regardless of the nature of the client's problem. In addition, an allergy to pollen would not place the client at risk for a neurological problem.

A client with right leg hemiplegia is experiencing difficulty with mobility. The nurse determines that the family needs reinforcement of teaching if the nurse observes which action by the family?

Encouraging the client to stand unassisted on the leg

The question is worded to elicit an unsafe action on the part of the family. Depending on the client's functional ability, either passive or active ROM is indicated to keep the joint moving freely. Application of a premolded splint would also keep the limb aligned and in good position. The client should not attempt to stand unsupported on a weak or paralyzed limb. The inability to bear weight will cause the client to fall.

The nurse is preparing a client who is scheduled to have cerebral angiography performed. Which should the nurse check before the procedure?

Allergy to iodine or shellfish

The client undergoing cerebral angiography is assessed for possible allergy to the contrast dye, which can be determined by questioning the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish. Allergy to salmon is not associated with this procedure. Claustrophobia and excessive weight are areas of concern with magnetic resonance imaging.

A client admitted to the hospital with a neurological problem indicates to the nurse that magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be done. Which finding noted in the client history indicates that the client may be ineligible for this diagnostic procedure?

Prosthetic valve replacement

The client having an MRI must have all metallic objects removed because of the magnetic field generated by the device. A careful history is done to determine if any metal objects are inside the client, such as orthopedic hardware, pacemakers, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, or intrauterine devices. These may heat up, become dislodged, or malfunction during this procedure. The client may be ineligible if there is significant risk.

A client is somewhat nervous about having magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Which statement by the nurse should provide reassurance to the client about the procedure?

"Even though you are alone in the scanner, you will be in voice communication with the technologist during the procedure."

The MRI scanner is a hollow tube, which gives some clients a feeling of claustrophobia. Metal objects must be removed before the procedure so that they are not drawn into the magnetic field. The client may eat and take all prescribed medications before the procedure. If a contrast medium is used, the client may wish to eat lightly if there is a tendency to get nauseated easily. The client lies supine on a padded table, which moves into the imager. The client must lie still during the procedure. The imager makes tapping noises while scanning. The client is alone in the imager, but the nurse can reassure the client that the technician is in voice communication with the client at all times during the procedure.

The nurse is trying to help the family of an unconscious client cope with the situation. Which intervention should the nurse plan to incorporate into the care routine for the client?

Explaining equipment and procedures on an ongoing basis

Families often need assistance to cope with the sudden, severe illness of a loved one. The nurse can help the family of an unconscious client by assisting them to work through their feelings of grief. The nurse should explain all equipment, treatments, and procedures, and supplement or reinforce information given by the health care provider. The family should be encouraged to touch and speak to the client and to become involved in the client's care to the extent that they are comfortable. The nurse should allow the family to stay with the client as much as possible and should encourage them to eat and sleep adequately to maintain their strength.

The nurse is suctioning an unconscious client who has a tracheostomy. The nurse should avoid which action during this procedure?

Making sure not to suction for longer than 30 seconds

Suction equipment should be kept at the bedside of an unconscious client, regardless of whether an artificial airway is present. The nurse auscultates breath sounds every 2 to 4 hours, or more frequently if there is a need. The client should be hyperoxygenated before, during, and after suctioning to minimize cerebral hypoxia. The client should not be suctioned for longer than 10 seconds at one time to prevent cerebral hypoxia and an increase in intracranial pressure.

The nurse has applied a hypothermia blanket to a client with a fever. The nurse should inspect the skin frequently to detect which complication of hypothermia blanket use?

Skin breakdown

When a hypothermia blanket is used, the skin is inspected frequently for pressure points that over time could lead to skin breakdown. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not complications of hypothermia blanket use.

The nurse is caring for an unconscious client who is experiencing persistent hyperthermia with no signs and symptoms of infection. The nurse understands that there may be damage to the client's thermoregulatory center which is located in which part of the brain?

Hypothalamus

Hypothalamic damage causes hyperthermia, which may also be called "central fever." It is characterized by a persistent high fever with no diurnal variation. There is also an absence of sweating. Options 1, 2, and 3 are not associated with temperature regulation.

A client seeking treatment for an episode of hyperthermia is being discharged to home. The nurse determines that the client needs clarification of discharge instructions if the client makes which statement?

"I can resume a full activity level immediately."

Discharge instructions for the client hospitalized for hyperthermia include prevention of heat-related disorders, increased fluid intake for 24 hours, self-monitoring of voiding, and the importance of staying in a cool environment and resting.

The family of an unconscious client with increased intracranial pressure is talking at the client's bedside. They are discussing the gravity of the client's condition and wondering if the client will ever recover. How should the nurse interpret the client's situation?

It is possible the client can hear the family.

Some clients who have awakened from an unconscious state report that they remember hearing specific voices and conversations. Family and staff should assume that the client's sense of hearing is still intact and act accordingly. Research has also demonstrated that positive outcomes are associated with coma stimulation, that is, speaking to and touching the client.

The nurse is providing care to a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which approaches would be beneficial in controlling the client's ICP from an environmental viewpoint? Select all that apply.

Reducing environmental noise
Maintaining a calm atmosphere
Allowing the client uninterrupted time for sleep

Nursing interventions should be spaced out over the shift to minimize the risk of a rise in ICP. If possible, activities known to raise ICP should be avoided when possible. Other interventions to control the ICP include keeping the lighting in the room dim or off; maintaining a calm, quiet environment; and avoiding emotional stress and interruption of sleep.

The nurse is preparing to give the postcraniotomy client medication for incisional pain. The family asks the nurse why the client is receiving codeine sulfate and not "something stronger." The nurse should formulate a response based on which understanding of codeine?

Codeine does not alter respirations or mask neurological signs as do other opioids.

Codeine sulfate is the opioid analgesic often used for clients after craniotomy. It is frequently combined with a nonopioid analgesic such as acetaminophen for added effect. It does not alter the respiratory rate or mask neurological signs as do other opioids. Side effects of codeine include gastrointestinal upset and constipation. The medication can lead to physical and psychological dependence with chronic use. It is not the strongest opioid analgesic available.

The nurse reinforces home care instructions to the postcraniotomy client. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

"I will not hear sounds clearly unless they are loud."

Seizures are a complication that can occur for up to 1 year after surgery. For this reason, the client must diligently take anticonvulsant medications. The client and family are encouraged to keep track of doses administered. The family should learn seizure precautions and accompany the client while ambulating if dizziness or seizures tend to occur. The suture line is kept dry until sutures are removed to prevent infection. The postcraniotomy client can hear sounds, is typically sensitive to loud noises, and can find them irritating (e.g., loud television). Awareness control of environmental noise by others is helpful to this client.

The nurse notes documentation that a postcraniotomy client is having difficulty with body image. The nurse determines that the client is still working on the postoperative outcome criteria when the client indicates which altered personal appearance?

Indicates that facial puffiness will be a permanent problem

After craniotomy, the client may experience difficulty with altered personal appearance. The nurse can help by listening to the client's concerns and by clarifying any misconceptions about facial edema, periorbital bruising, and hair loss, which are temporary. The nurse can encourage the client to participate in self-grooming and use personal articles of clothing. Finally, the nurse can suggest the use of a turban, followed by a hairpiece, to help the client adapt to the temporary change in appearance.

A client with spinal cord injury becomes angry and belligerent whenever the nurse tries to administer care. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Acknowledge the client's anger and continue to encourage participation in care.

Adjusting to paralysis is difficult both physically and psychosocially for the client and family. The nurse recognizes that the client goes through the grieving process in adjusting to the loss and may move back and forth among the stages of grief. The nurse acknowledges the client's feelings while continuing to meet the client's physical needs and encouraging independence.

A client with a spinal cord injury expresses little interest in food and is very particular about the choice of meals that are actually eaten. How should the nurse interpret this?

Meal choices represent an area of client control and should be encouraged as much as is nutritionally reasonable.

Depression is frequently seen in the client with spinal cord injury and may be exhibited as a loss of appetite. The client should be allowed to choose the types of food eaten and to eat as much as is feasible because it is one of the few areas of control that the client has left.

A client who is paraplegic after spinal cord injury has been taught muscle-strengthening exercises for the upper body. The nurse determines that the client will derive the least muscle-strengthening benefit from which activity?

Doing active range of motion to finger joints

Range-of-motion exercises of the finger joints prevent contractures but do not actively strengthen muscle groups needed for self-mobilization with paraplegia. Other activities that are more effective include push-ups from a prone position, sit-ups from a sitting position, extending the arms while holding weights, and squeezing rubber balls or crumpling newspaper.

A client with diplopia has been taught to use an eye patch to promote better vision and prevent injury. The nurse determines that the client understands how to use the patch if the client states that he or she will do which?

Wear the patch continuously, alternating eyes each day.

Placing an eye patch over one eye in the client with diplopia removes the second image and restores more normal vision. The patch is worn continuously and is alternated on a daily basis to maintain the strength of the extraocular muscles of the eyes.

The nurse is planning care for a client in spinal shock. Which action would be least helpful in minimizing the effects of vasodilation below the level of the injury?

Moving the client quickly as one unit
Reflex vasodilation below the level of spinal cord injury places the client at risk of orthostatic hypotension, which may be profound. Actions to minimize this include measuring vital signs before and during position changes, use of a tilt table in early mobilization, and changing the client's position slowly. Venous pooling can be reduced by using compression stockings, if prescribed. Vasopressor medications are used as per protocol and as prescribed.

The nursing instructor asks a nursing student about the points to document if the client has had a seizure. The instructor determines that the student needs to research seizures and related documentation points if the student states which assessment is important?

Client's diet in the 2 hours preceding seizure activity

Typically, seizure assessment includes the time the seizure began, part(s) of the body affected, the type of movements and progression of the seizure, changes in pupil size, eye deviation or nystagmus, client condition during the seizure, and postictal status.

The nurse is planning to institute seizure precautions for a client who is being admitted from the emergency department. Which measure should the nurse avoid in planning for the client's safety?

Putting a padded tongue blade at the head of the bed

Seizure precautions may vary somewhat from agency to agency, but they generally have some commonalities. Usually airway, oxygen, and suctioning equipment are kept available at the bedside. The side rails of the bed are padded, and the bed is kept in the lowest position. The client should have an IV access in place to have a readily accessible route if anticonvulsant medications must be administered. The use of padded tongue blades is no longer best practice, and they should not be kept at the bedside. Forcing a tongue blade into the mouth during a seizure will more likely harm the client who bites down during seizure activity. Other risks include blocking the airway from improper placement, chipping the client's teeth, and subsequent risk of aspirating tooth fragments. If the client has an aura before the seizure, it may give the nurse enough time to place an oral airway before seizure activity begins.

The nurse has given medication instructions to the client receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client makes which comment?

"Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing."

Typical anticonvulsant medication instructions include taking the prescribed dose daily to keep the blood level of the drug constant, having a serum drug level drawn before taking the morning dose, avoiding abruptly stopping the medication, avoiding alcohol, checking with the health care provider before taking over-the-counter medications, avoiding activities in which alertness and coordination are required until medication effects are known, providing good oral hygiene and getting regular dental care, and wearing a Medic-Alert bracelet or tag.

A client with a stroke (brain attack) has residual dysphagia. When a diet prescription is initiated, the should nurse avoid which action?

Giving the client thin liquids

Before the client with dysphagia is started on a diet, the gag and swallow reflexes must have returned. The client is assisted with meals as needed and is given ample time to chew and swallow. Food is placed on the unaffected side of the mouth. Liquids are thickened to avoid aspiration.

The nurse is trying to communicate with a stroke (brain attack) client with aphasia. Which action by the nurse would be least helpful to the client?

Completing the sentences that the client cannot finish

Clients with aphasia after stroke often fatigue easily and have a short attention span. General guidelines when trying to communicate with the aphasic client include speaking more slowly and allowing adequate response time, listening to and watching attempts to communicate, and trying to put the client at ease with a caring and understanding manner. The nurse should avoid shouting (because the client is not deaf), appearing impatient for a response, and completing responses for the client.

A client receives a dose of edrophonium (Enlon). The client shows improvement in muscle strength for a period of time following the injection. The nurse should interpret this finding as indicative of which disease process?

Myasthenia gravis
Myasthenia gravis can often be diagnosed based on clinical signs and symptoms. The diagnosis can be confirmed by injecting the client with a dose of edrophonium. This medication inhibits the breakdown of an enzyme in the neuromuscular junction, so more acetylcholine binds to receptors. If the muscle is strengthened for 3 to 5 minutes after this injection, it confirms a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Another medication, neostigmine (Prostigmin), also may be used because its effect lasts for 1 to 2 hours, providing a better analysis. For either medication, atropine sulfate should be available as the antidote.

A client with myasthenia gravis is having difficulty speaking. The client's speech is dysarthric and has a nasal tone. The nurse should use which communication strategies when working with this client? Select all that apply.

Listening attentively
Asking yes and no questions when able
Using a communication board when necessary
Repeating what the client said to verify the message

The client has speech that is nasal in tone and dysarthric because of cranial nerve involvement of the muscles governing speech. The nurse listens attentively and verbally, verifies what the client has said, asks questions requiring a yes or no response, and develops alternative communication methods (e.g., letter board, picture board, pen and paper, flash cards). Encouraging the client to speak quickly is an ineffective communication strategy and is counterproductive.

The nurse is teaching the client with myasthenia gravis about prevention of myasthenic and cholinergic crises. The nurse tells the client that this is most effectively done by which activity?

Taking medications on time to maintain therapeutic blood levels

Clients with myasthenia gravis are taught to space out activities over the day to conserve energy and restore muscle strength. It is very important to take medications correctly to maintain blood levels that are not too low or too high. Muscle-strengthening exercises are not helpful and can fatigue the client. Overeating is a cause of exacerbation of symptoms as are exposure to heat, crowds, erratic sleep habits, and emotional stress.

The nurse has instructed the client with myasthenia gravis about ways to manage his or her own health at home. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client makes which statements?

"Going to the beach will be a nice, relaxing form of activity."

Most ongoing treatment for myasthenia gravis is done in outpatient settings, and the client needs to be aware of the lifestyle changes needed to maintain independence. Taking medications 1 hour before mealtime gives greater muscle strength for chewing and is indicated. The client should have portable suction equipment and a portable resuscitation bag available in case of respiratory distress. The client should carry medical identification about the condition. The client should avoid activities that could worsen the symptoms, including stress, infection, heat (including staying out of the sun at the beach), surgery, or alcohol.

A client with Parkinson's disease is experiencing a parkinsonian crisis. The nurse should immediately place the client where?

In a quiet, dim room with respiratory and cardiac support available

Parkinsonian crisis can occur with emotional trauma or sudden withdrawal of medications. The client exhibits severe tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. The client also displays anxiety, is diaphoretic, and has tachycardia and hyperpnea. The client should be placed in a quiet, dim room, and respiratory and cardiac support should be available.

The nurse has given instructions to the client with Parkinson's disease about maintaining mobility. The nurse determines that the client understands the directions if the client states that he or she will perform which activity?

Rock back and forth to start movement with bradykinesia.

The client with Parkinson's disease should exercise in the morning, when energy levels are highest. The client should avoid sitting in soft, deep chairs because getting up from them can be difficult. The client can rock back and forth to initiate movement. The client should buy clothes with Velcro fasteners and slide-locking buckles to allow for easier dressing.

An adult client had a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis after lumbar puncture. The nurse interprets that a negative value of which is consistent with normal findings?

Red blood cells

The adult with normal cerebrospinal fluid has no red blood cells in the CSF. The client may have small levels of white blood cells (0 to 3 per mm3). Protein (15 to 45 mg/dL) and glucose (40 to 80 mg/dL) are normally present in CSF.

The nurse is collecting data on a client with a diagnosis of meningitis and notes that the client is assuming this posture. (Refer to figure.) The nurse contacts the health care provider and reports that the client is exhibiting which?

Opisthotonos
Opisthotonos is a prolonged arching of the back with the head and heels bent backward. Opisthotonos indicates meningeal irritation. In decorticate rigidity, the upper extremities (arms, wrists, and fingers) are flexed with adduction of the arms. The lower extremities are extended with internal rotation and plantar flexion. Decorticate rigidity indicates a hemispheric lesion of the cerebral cortex. In decerebrate rigidity, the upper extremities are stiffly extended and adducted with internal rotation and pronation of the palms. The lower extremities are extended stiffly with plantar flexion. The teeth are clenched and the back is hyperextended. Decerebrate rigidity indicates a lesion in the brainstem at the midbrain or upper pons. Flaccid quadriplegia is complete loss of muscle tone and paralysis of all four extremities, indicating a completely nonfunctional brain stem.

An older gentleman is brought to the emergency department by a neighbor who heard him talking and wandering in the street at 3 am. The nurse should first determine which about the client?

Whether this is a change in his usual level of orientation

The nurse should first determine whether this is a change in the client's neurological status. The next item to determine should include when the client last ate. Blood toxicology levels may be needed, but the health care provider would prescribe these. Insurance information must be obtained at some point, but it is not the priority from a clinical care viewpoint.

An 84-year-old client in an acute state of disorientation was brought to the emergency department by the client's daughter. The daughter states that this is the first time that the client experienced confusion. The nurse determines from this piece of information that which is unlikely to be the cause of the client's disorientation?

Alzheimer's disease

Alzheimer's disease is a chronic disease with progression of memory deficits over time. The situation presented in the question represents an acute problem. Medication use, hypoglycemia, and impaired cerebral circulation require evaluation to determine if they play a role in causing the client's current symptoms.

A resident in a long-term care facility prepares to walk out into a rainstorm after saying, "My father is waiting to take me for a ride." An appropriate response by the nurse is which?

"I'm glad you told me that. Let's have a cup of coffee and you can tell me about your father."

The correct response acknowledges the client's comment and feelings. Option 1 is inappropriate and is inconsistent with legal aspects of care based on the information given. Option 2 fails to protect the client from possible harm. Option 3 does not preserve the client's dignity.

The nurse observes that a client with Parkinson's disease has very little facial expression. The nurse attributes this piece of data to which information?

Masklike facies is a component of Parkinson's disease.

A masked facial expression is typical of the client with Parkinson's disease. There are no data to support the assumption provided in option 2. Option 3 is not a true statement. Option 4 places a false interpretation on the client's expression.

The nurse overhears the term sundowning used to describe the behavior of a client newly admitted to the nursing unit during the previous evening shift. Of which diagnosis is sundowning a symptom?

Alzheimer's disease

The term sundowning or sundown syndrome refers to a pattern of disorientation in which the client is more oriented during the daytime hours and more disoriented at night. It is seen often in clients with Alzheimer's disease. It is not a characteristic of the conditions noted in the other options.

A client in the emergency department is diagnosed with Bell's palsy. The nurse collecting data on this client expects to note which observation?

A lag in closing the bottom eyelid

The facial drooping associated with Bell's palsy makes it difficult for the client to close the eyelid on the affected side. A widening of the palpebral fissure (the opening between the eyelids) and an asymmetrical smile are seen with Bell's palsy. Paroxysms of excruciating pain are seen with trigeminal neuralgia.

An adult client with suspected meningitis has undergone lumbar puncture to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis of a bacterial infection. The nurse checks for which value indicating a bacterial infection of the CSF?

Decreased glucose level

Findings that indicate a bacterial infection of the cerebrospinal fluid include presence of a bacterial organism, elevated WBC count, elevated protein level, and decreased glucose level. Red blood cells should not be present in CSF.

The nurse is monitoring a client with a head injury and notes that the client is assuming the posture shown in the figure. What is the client exhibiting that would require the nurse to notify the registered nurse immediately? Refer to the figure.

Decorticate posturing

In decorticate posturing, the upper extremities (arms, wrists, and fingers) are flexed with adduction of the arms. The lower extremities are extended with internal rotation and plantar flexion. Decorticate posturing indicates a hemispheric lesion of the cerebral cortex. In decerebrate posturing, the upper extremities are extended stiffly and adducted with internal rotation and pronation of the palms. The lower extremities are extended stiffly with plantar flexion. The teeth are clenched and the back is hyperextended. Decerebrate posturing indicates a lesion in the brainstem at the midbrain or upper pons. Flaccid quadriplegia is complete loss of muscle tone and paralysis of all four extremities, indicating a completely nonfunctional brainstem. Opisthotonos is prolonged arching of the back with the head and heels bent backward. Opisthotonos indicates meningeal irritation.

The nurse is assisting in caring for a client who sustained a traumatic head injury following a motor vehicle crash. The nurse documents that the client is exhibiting decerebrate posturing. The nurse bases this documentation on which observation?

Extension of the extremities and pronation of the arms

Decerebrate posturing (abnormal extension), which is associated with dysfunction in the brainstem area, consists of extension of the extremities and pronation of the arms. Posturing is a late sign of deterioration in the client's neurological status and warrants immediate health care provider notification.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Bell's palsy 1 week ago. Which data would indicate a potential complication associated with Bell's palsy?

Excessive tearing

Complications of Bell's palsy include abnormal return of nerve function; "crocodile tears" (autonomic fibers reconnect to the lacrimal duct instead of the salivary glands, so the client develops excessive tearing while eating); abnormal facial movements because of reinnervation of inappropriate muscles; and spasms, atrophy, and contractures caused by incomplete motor fiber reinnervation. Partial facial paralysis is a factor indicating recovery. Negative outcomes on the electromyography performed 1 week after symptom onset indicate that nerve function is present (a negative test indicates a positive prognostic outcome). Tasting food 1 week after symptom onset indicates a good prognosis for recovery.

The nurse is collecting data on a client suspected of having Alzheimer's disease. The priority data should focus on which characteristic of this disease?

Recent memory loss

Dementia is the hallmark of Alzheimer's disease. Recent memory loss is one characteristic. Others include problems with abstract thinking, problems with speech (not hearing), and difficulty in performing familiar tasks.

The nurse is monitoring a client with a C5 spinal cord injury for spinal shock. Which findings would be associated with spinal shock in this client? Select all that apply.

Bowel sounds are absent.
The client's abdomen is distended.
Respiratory excursion is diminished.
Accessory muscles of respiration are areflexic.

During the period of areflexia that characterizes spinal shock, the blood pressure may fall when the client sits up. The bowel and bladder often become flaccid, may become distended, and fail to empty spontaneously. Bowel sounds would be absent. Accessory muscles of respiration may become areflexic as well, diminishing respiratory excursion and oxygenation.

The nurse is ambulating a client with a known seizure disorder. The client says, "I'm seeing those flashing lights again," then loses consciousness and develops a clonic-tonic seizure. Which would be the nurse's initial action?

Assist the client to the floor.

Assisting the client to the floor is the initial action to prevent client injury. Inserting an oral airway may actually cause harm to the client and no item should be inserted into the client's mouth during a seizure. Administering a dose of phenytoin requires a health care provider's prescription and would not be the first action. Stat paging the health care provider would not be the first action from the options provided

The nurse is collecting data on a client with myasthenia gravis. The nurse determines that the client may be developing myasthenic crisis if the client makes which statement?

"I can't swallow very well today."

Because dysphagia is a classic sign of myasthenia gravis exacerbation, observing how a client is able to ingest food is an important assessment. Timing of this medication is of paramount concern. Although options 1, 2, and 4 may require further assessment, option 4 reflects the potential of developing myasthenic crisis.

Which information will the nurse reinforce to the client scheduled for a lumbar puncture?

An informed consent will be required.

Client preparation for lumbar puncture includes obtaining informed consent from the client. No dietary or food restrictions are required before the test. The client is told that the test will take approximately 15 to 60 minutes. The nurse needs to inform the client about the need for bed rest following the test.

The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client taking divalproex sodium (Depakote). The nurse tells the client to return to the clinic for follow-up laboratory studies related to which test?

Liver function studies

Divalproex sodium, an anticonvulsant, can cause hepatotoxicity, which is potentially fatal. The nurse instructs the client to return to the clinic for follow-up liver function studies, such as lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT), serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT), and ammonia levels. This is especially indicated in the first 6 months of therapy. The laboratory studies identified in the other options are not specifically related to the administration of this medication

Which data collection finding supports the possible diagnosis of Bell's palsy?

Speech or chewing difficulties accompanied by facial droop

Bell's palsy is a one-sided facial paralysis from compression of cranial nerve VII (facial) VII. There is facial droop from paralysis of the facial muscles, increased lacrimation, and speech or chewing difficulty. The remaining options are not characteristics of Bell's palsy.

The nurse reviews the health care provider's treatment plan for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which prescription noted in the client's record should the nurse question?

Clear liquid diet

Clients with Guillain-Barré syndrome have dysphagia. Clients with dysphagia are more likely to aspirate clear liquids than thick or semisolid foods. Clients with Guillain-Barré syndrome are at risk for hypotension or hypertension, bradycardia, and respiratory depression and require frequent monitoring of vital signs. Passive range-of-motion exercises can help prevent contractures, and checking calf measurements can help detect deep vein thrombosis, for which clients are at risk.

A client has a halo vest that was applied following a C6 spinal cord injury. The nurse performs which action to determine whether the client is ready to begin sitting up?

Compares the client's pulse and blood pressure when both flat and sitting

Clients with cervical spinal cord injuries may lose control over peripheral vasoconstriction, causing postural (orthostatic) hypotension when upright. A drop of 15 mm Hg in the systolic pressure or 10 mm Hg in the diastolic pressure accompanied by an increase in heart rate when the head is elevated may indicate autonomic insufficiency that can cause dizziness or syncope in the upright position. Assessment of skin integrity of the pin sites is important but does not affect sitting readiness. Hip range of motion is not affected initially in this type of cord injury. The halo vest is not loosened by the nurse. The vest provides trunk stability for sitting.

A client is admitted to the emergency department with a C4 spinal cord injury. The nurse performs which intervention first when collecting data on the client?

Monitoring the respiratory rate

Because compromise of respiration is a leading cause of death in cervical spinal cord injury, respiratory assessment is the highest priority. Assessment of temperature and strength can be done after adequate oxygenation is assured. Dyskinesia occurs in cerebellar disorders, so it is not important in cord-injured clients, unless a head injury is suspected.

A client with myasthenia gravis is experiencing prolonged periods of weakness. The health care provider prescribes a test dose of edrophonium (Enlon) and the client becomes weaker. The nurse interprets this outcome as indicative of which result?

Cholinergic crisis

Edrophonium is administered to differentiate overdose of medication (cholinergic crisis) from the need for increased medication (myasthenic crisis). Worsening of the symptoms after edrophonium is administered indicates a cholinergic crisis (overdose of the medication), or a negative test.

The nurse is assisting in gathering data on cranial nerve XII of a client who sustained a brain attack (stroke). The nurse understands that the client should be asked to perform which action?

Extend the tongue.

To assess the function of cranial (hypoglossal) nerve XII, the nurse would assess the client's ability to extend the tongue. Options 1, 3, and 4 are unrelated to assessing this cranial nerve.

The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which initial sign/symptom of this disorder supports this diagnosis?

Mild clumsiness

The initial manifestation of ALS is a mild clumsiness usually in the distal portion of one extremity. The client may complain of tripping and may drag one leg when the lower extremities are involved. Mentation and intellectual function are usually normal. Diminished gag reflex and muscle wasting are not initial clinical signs/symptoms.

The nurse is assisting in caring for a client with a supratentorial lesion. The nurse monitors which criterion as the critical index of central nervous system (CNS) dysfunction?

Level of consciousness

Level of consciousness is the most critical index of CNS dysfunction. Changes in level of consciousness can indicate clinical improvement or deterioration. Although blood pressure, temperature, and ability to speak may be components of the assessment, the client level of consciousness is the most critical index of CNS dysfunction.

The nurse caring for a client following a craniotomy monitors for signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which indicates an early sign of increased ICP?

Confusion

Early signs/symptoms of increased intracranial pressure are subtle and may often be transient, lasting for only a few minutes in some cases. These early clinical signs/symptoms include changes in level of consciousness, including episodes of confusion and drowsiness, and slight pupillary and breathing changes. Clinical signs/symptoms of later increased intracranial pressure include decreasing levels of consciousness, a widened pulse pressure, and bradycardia. Cheyne-Stokes respiratory pattern, or a hyperventilation respiratory pattern, and sluggish and dilating pupils appear in the later stages.

Acetazolamide is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of a supratentorial lesion. The nurse monitors the client for effectiveness of this medication, knowing which is its primary action?

Decrease cerebrospinal fluid production
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. It is used in the client with, or at risk for, increased intracranial pressure to decrease cerebrospinal fluid production. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not actions of this medication.

Which sign/symptom is observed in the clonic phase of a seizure?

Extension spasms of the body

The clonic phase of a seizure is characterized by violent extension spasms of the entire body interrupted by muscular relaxation and accompanied by strenuous hyperventilation. The face is contorted and the eyes roll. There is excessive salivation resulting in frothing from the mouth, biting of the tongue, profuse sweating, and a rapid pulse. The clonic jerking subsides by slowing in frequency and losing strength over a period of 30 seconds. Options 1, 2, and 3 identify the tonic phase of a seizure.

The nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with a prescription for seizure precautions. Which supplies will the nurse make available to this client? Select all that apply.

Suction machine
Oxygen administration
Padding for the side rails
Prescribed diazepam (Valium)

Full seizure precautions include bed rest with padded side rails in a raised position, a suction machine at the bedside, having diazepam (Valium) or lorazepam (Ativan) available, and oxygen. Objects such as tongue blades are not necessary and should never be placed in the client's mouth during a seizure.

The nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with a diagnosis of early stage Alzheimer's disease. The nurse assists in developing a plan of care, knowing that which is a characteristic of early Alzheimer's disease?

Forgetfulness

In early Alzheimer's disease, forgetfulness begins to interfere with daily routines. The client has difficulty concentrating and difficulty learning new material. Options 1, 2, and 4 are characteristics of dementia that occur late as the disease progresses.

The clinic nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client scheduled to be seen in the clinic. The nurse notes that the client is prescribed selegiline hydrochloride (Eldepryl). The nurse understands that this medication is prescribed for which diagnosis?

Parkinson's disease

Selegiline hydrochloride is an antiparkinsonian medication. The medication increases dopaminergic action, assisting in the reduction of tremor, akinesia, and the rigidity of parkinsonism. This medication is not used to treat coronary artery disease, diabetes mellitus, or Alzheimer's disease.

The nurse is reviewing the record of a client with a suspected diagnosis of Huntington's disease. Which documented early symptom supports this diagnosis?

Vertigo

Early symptoms of Huntington's disease include restlessness, forgetfulness, clumsiness, falls, balance and coordination problems, vertigo, and altered speech and handwriting. Difficulty with swallowing occurs in the later stages. Aphasia and agnosia do not occur.

The nurse is assisting in caring for a client with a suspected diagnosis of meningitis. The nurse reinforces to the client information regarding which diagnostic test that is commonly used to confirm this diagnosis?

Lumbar puncture

Meningitis is an acute or chronic inflammation of the meningeal area and the cerebrospinal fluid. The key diagnostic test used in meningitis is the lumbar puncture. The remaining options also may be performed but will not confirm the diagnosis.

The nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with a suspected diagnosis of herpes simplex encephalitis. Which diagnostic test should be prescribed to confirm this diagnosis?

Brain biopsy

The diagnosis of herpes simplex encephalitis can be made by brain biopsy and is rarely made from the culture of cerebrospinal fluid obtained from a lumbar puncture. The EEG is abnormal, in many cases, indicating temporal lobe abnormalities, but it will not confirm the diagnosis. The CT scan is normal up to the first 5 days, with low-density lesions in the temporal lobe noted later.

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis who has been prescribed oxybutynin (Ditropan). The nurse evaluates the effectiveness of the medication by asking the client which question?

"Are you getting up at night to urinate?"

Oxybutynin is an antispasmodic used to relieve symptoms of urinary urgency, frequency, nocturia, and incontinence in clients with uninhibited or reflex neurogenic bladder. Expected effects include improved urinary control and decreased urinary frequency, incontinence, and nocturia. Options 1, 2, and 4 are unrelated to the use of this medication.

The nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with a suspected diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which sign/symptom is considered a primary symptom of this syndrome?

Development of muscle weakness

A hallmark symptom of Guillain-Barré syndrome is muscle weakness that develops rapidly. The client does not have symptoms such as a fever or headache. Cerebral function, level of consciousness, and pupillary responses are normal. Seizures are not normally associated with this disorder.

A thymectomy via a median sternotomy approach is performed on a client with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. The nurse has assisted in developing a plan of care for the client and includes which nursing action in the plan?

Monitor the chest tube drainage.

A thymectomy may be performed to improve the condition in clients with myasthenia gravis. The procedure is performed by a median sternotomy or a transcervical approach. Postoperatively, the client will have a chest tube in the mediastinum. Pain medication is administered as needed, but the client is monitored closely for respiratory depression. Lactated Ringer's intravenous solutions are usually avoided because they can increase weakness. There is no reason to restrict visitors.

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of right (nondominant) hemispheric brain attack (stroke). The nurse notes that the client is alert and oriented to time and place. Based on these findings, the nurse makes which determination?

The client may have perceptual and spatial disabilities.

The client with a right (nondominant) hemispheric stroke may be alert and oriented to time and place. These signs of apparent wellness often result in interpretations that the client is less disabled than is the case. However, impulsive actions and confusion in carrying out activities may be very much a problem for these clients, as a result of perceptual and spatial disabilities. The right hemisphere is considered specialized in sensory-perceptual and visuospatial processing and awareness of body space. The left hemisphere is dominant for language abilities

The nurse is preparing to care for a client with a diagnosis of brain attack (stroke). The nurse notes in the client's record that the client has anosognosia. The nurse plans care, knowing which is a characteristic of anosognosia?

The client neglects the affected side.

In anosognosia, the client neglects the affected side of the body. The client may neglect the affected side (often creating a safety hazard as a result of potential injuries) or state that the involved arm or leg belongs to someone else. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not associated with anosognosia.

The nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with a brain attack (stroke) who has global aphasia. The nurse incorporates communication strategies in the plan of care, knowing that the client's speech should fit which characterization?

Associated with poor comprehension

Global aphasia is a condition in which a person has few language skills as a result of extensive damage to the left hemisphere. The speech is nonfluent and is associated with poor comprehension and limited ability to name objects or repeat words. The client with conduction aphasia has difficulty repeating words spoken by another, and the speech is characterized by literal paraphasia with intact comprehension. The client with Wernicke's aphasia may exhibit a rambling type of speech.

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of brain attack (stroke) with anosognosia. To meet the needs of the client with this deficit, which action does the nurse plan?

Increase the client's awareness of the affected side.

In anosognosia, the client neglects the affected side of the body. The nurse should plan care activities that encourage the client to look at the affected arm or leg and that will increase the client's awareness of the affected side. Options 1, 2, and 3 are not associated with this deficit.

The nurse is caring for a client who sustained a spinal cord injury. While administering morning care, the client developed signs and symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. Which is the initial nursing action?

Elevate the head of the bed.

Autonomic dysreflexia is a serious complication that can occur in the spinal cord of the injured client. Once the syndrome is identified, the nurse elevates the head of the client's bed and then examines the client for the source of noxious stimuli. The nurse also assesses the client's blood pressure, but the initial action is to elevate the head of the bed. The client should not be placed in the prone position.

A female client with myasthenia gravis comes to the health care provider's office for a scheduled office visit. The client is very concerned and tells the nurse that her husband seems to be avoiding her because she is very unattractive. Which is the appropriate nursing response?

"Have you thought about sharing your feelings with your husband?"

Encouraging the client to share feelings with her husband directly addresses the subject of the question. Advising the client to join a support group will not address the client's immediate and individual concerns. The remaining options are blocks to communication and avoid the client's concerns.

A client is recovering at home after suffering a brain attack (stroke) 2 weeks ago. A home caregiver tells the home health nurse that the client has some difficulty swallowing food and fluids. Which nursing action would be appropriate?

Observe the client feeding himself or herself.

It is not uncommon for a client to have difficulty swallowing after having a brain attack (stroke). Often the client has hemiplegia. The client's arm may be paralyzed, and the client has to learn to use an opposite arm to feed himself or herself. Using a different arm may require rehabilitation and retraining. Also a client may have partial paralysis of the mouth, tongue, or esophagus. To best assist the client, the nurse should first assess the situation by watching the client feed himself or herself. Perhaps the problem lies in the feeding technique, the type of feeding tool used, the types of foods being served, or a combination of problems. Having someone else feed the client may be necessary if the client is determined to be unable to feed himself or herself, but this action does not promote independence in the client. A feeding syringe is not recommended for feeding most clients.

The nurse is collecting neurological data on a poststroke adult client. Which technique should the nurse perform to adequately check proprioception?

Hold the sides of the client's great toe, and while moving it, ask what position it is in.

Proprioception is tested by holding the sides of the client's great toe and, while moving it, asking the client what position it is in. Option 1 identifies the assessment for gastrocnemius muscle contraction, and option 2 tests two-point discrimination. The plantar reflex is elicited in option 3. Normally, the toes plantar flex, but when abnormal, the toes dorsiflex and fan out.

The nurse develops a plan of care for a client following a lumbar puncture. Which interventions should be included in the plan? Select all that apply.

Monitor the client's ability to void.
Maintain the client in a flat position.
Monitor the client's ability to move the extremities.
Inspect the puncture site for swelling, redness, and drainage.

Following a lumbar puncture, the client remains flat in bed for 6 to 24 hours, depending on the health care provider's prescriptions. A liberal fluid intake (not NPO status) is encouraged to replace cerebrospinal fluid removed during the procedure, unless contraindicated by the client's condition. The nurse checks the puncture site for redness and drainage, and monitors the client's ability to void and move the extremities.

A client with Parkinson's disease "freezes" while ambulating, increasing the risk for falls. Which suggestion should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to alleviate this problem?

Consciously think about walking over imaginary lines on the floor.

Clients with Parkinson's disease can develop bradykinesia (slow movement) or akinesia (freezing or no movement). Having these individuals imagine lines on the floor to step over can keep them moving forward. Although standing erect and using a cane can help prevent falls, these measures will not help a person with akinesia move forward. Clients with Parkinson's disease should walk with a wide gait, not with the feet close together. A wheelchair should be used only when the client can no longer ambulate with assistive devices such as canes or walkers.

The nurse is assisting in checking for Tinel's sign in a client suspected of having carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS). Which technique should the nurse expect to be used to elicit this sign?

Percuss the medial nerve at the wrist as it enters the carpal tunnel, and monitor for tingling sensations.

The presence of Tinel's sign is determined by percussing the medial nerve at the wrist as it enters the carpal tunnel. A tingling sensation over the distribution of the nerve occurs in CTS. The presence of Phalen's sign is determined by asking the client to flex the wrist at a 90-degree angle for 1 minute. Numbness and tingling over the distribution of the median nerve, the palmar surface of the thumb, and the index and middle fingers suggest CTS. Phalen's sign is also an indication of CTS. Options 1 and 2 are incorrect.

The nurse is monitoring a client with a spinal cord injury who is experiencing spinal shock. Which assessment will provide the nurse with the best information about recovery from the spinal shock?

Reflexes

Areflexia characterizes spinal shock; therefore, reflexes should provide the best information. Vital sign changes are not consistently affected by spinal shock.

The nurse is caring for a client with a cerebral aneurysm who is on aneurysm precautions and is monitoring the client for signs of aneurysm rupture. The nurse understands that an early sign of rupture is which?

A decline in the level of consciousness

Rupture of a cerebral aneurysm usually results in increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The first sign of pressure is a change in the level of consciousness because of compression of the reticular formation in the brain. This change in level of consciousness can be as subtle as drowsiness or restlessness. Because centers that control blood pressure are located lower in the brainstem than those that control consciousness, changes in pulse pressure are a later sign. Options 1 and 2 are not early signs of ICP. These signs may occur later if the ICP has led to neurological damage.

The nurse is caring for a client with a head injury and is monitoring the client for signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which sign if noted in the client should the nurse report immediately?

The client vomits.

The client with a closed head injury is at risk of developing increased ICP. This is evidenced by symptoms such as headache, dizziness, confusion, weakness, and vomiting. Options 2, 3, and 4 are expected occurrences. Option 1 may be an indication of increased ICP, requiring notification of the registered nurse and health care provider.

The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury. High-top sneakers on the client's feet will prevent the occurrence of which?

Foot drop

The most effective way to prevent foot drop is to use posterior splints or high-top sneakers. A foot board prevents plantar flexion but also places the client at greater risk for developing pressure ulcers of the feet. Pneumatic boots prevent deep vein thrombosis but not foot drop.

A halo vest is applied to a client following a cervical spine fracture. The nurse reinforces instructions to the client regarding safety measures related to the vest. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

"I will bend at the waist, keeping the halo vest straight to pick up items."

The client with a halo vest should avoid bending at the waist because the halo vest is heavy and the client's trunk is limited in flexibility. It is helpful for the client to scan the environment visually because the client's peripheral vision is diminished from keeping the neck in a stationary position. Use of a walker and rubber-soled shoes may help prevent falls and injury, so these items are also helpful.

The nurse is preparing a plan of care to monitor for complications in a client who will be returning from the operating room following transsphenoidal resection of a pituitary adenoma. Which intervention does the nurse document in the plan as the priority nursing intervention for this client?

Monitor urine output.

The most common complication of surgery on the pituitary gland is temporary diabetes insipidus. This results from deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion as a result of surgical trauma. The nurse measures the client's urine output to determine whether this complication is occurring. Options 1, 3, and 4 are also components of the plan, but option 2 clearly identifies the priority intervention for this type of surgery.

The nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client who has undergone transsphenoidal surgery for a pituitary adenoma. Which statement by the client indicates the client understands the discharge instructions?

"I need to call the doctor if I develop frequent swallowing or postnasal drip.

The client should report frequent swallowing or postnasal drip after transsphenoidal surgery because it could indicate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. The surgeon removes the nasal packing, usually after 24 hours. The client should deep breathe, but coughing is contraindicated because it could cause increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The client should also report a severe headache because it could indicate increased ICP.

Which strategy would the nurse use to communicate with patients who are cognitively impaired?

Which nontherapeutic technique would the nurse avoid while communicating with a patient quizlet?

Which action would the nurse take when communicating with a patient with aphasia quizlet?

Which communication technique is the nurse using when he or she comments on positive?